daughtry76 daughtry76
  • 01-03-2018
  • Mathematics
contestada

why does 16 to the power of 0 equal 1?

Respuesta :

angicarl
angicarl angicarl
  • 01-03-2018
16 to the power of 0 is one because any number to the 0 power is 1. This is because you aren't multiply 16 (or any number) by itself any amount of times.
Answer Link
AnimeBrainly
AnimeBrainly AnimeBrainly
  • 01-03-2018
16^0 = 1 because any number to the zero power is just the product of no numbers at all, which =  1.


hope this helps
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

How would you command someone not to speak (hablar), using the tú command?
What is parliamentary democracy in your own words?? I don't accept answers from other websites.
HELP ME PLEASE I GOT 2 MORE QUESTIONS TO GO
Which of the following statements is true? a. From the 1920s to 1940s, the radio was growing quickly as a source of political news. b. From the 1920s to 1940s,
In an essay, flow is A. the arrangement of words and symbols within a sentence. B. the use of transition words between supporting paragraphs. C. achieved when
What's the answer to this math problem
What memory stores instructions that tell the computer how to start up?
Jake wrote this equation for the area of a rectangle. 431.2 = 24.5w. What is the width (w) of this rectangle? A. 17.6 units B. 67.7 units C. 406.
Describe three things that can happen to water when it falls on Earth’s surface.
jessica has two sticks. the sticks are the same distance apart at every point. how would you best describe the sticks